From: | Angela Swan <aswan@airdberlis.com> |
To: | Robert H Stevens <robert.stevens@ucl.ac.uk> |
haroldjen@netspace.net.au | |
CC: | Obligations list <obligations@uwo.ca> |
Date: | 15/01/2009 14:26:09 UTC |
Subject: | RE: ODG: Duties to the unborn |
Robert says that one can justify imposing liability on the defendant "where
the defendant won't end up bearing the cost in any event".
This argument is bad and the statement about the incidence of the loss is
false.
The argument is bad because it would justify imposing liability on any defendant
who has insurance, as, for example, no-fault automobile insurance schemes do
(though with a substantial allocation of the loss to the plaintiff who gets far
less compensation than he or she might get were the regime fault-based). If
one wants to have a no-fault insurance regime covering all the vicissitudes of
life—a clear policy choice we could make—then we don’t need a
law of torts.
The statement is false because the defendant will bear the costs in one
of three ways: (i) the cost will be borne (as in automobile insurance) by all
those in the industry or participating in the activity; (ii) the defendant itself
may have its premiums increased as in workers' compensation schemes; or (iii) the
defendant's insurer may either cancel the defendant's insurance or refuse to renew
the policy.
The risk to a defendant of the last event is, particularly with a small
business, very serious because without insurance the business almost certainly
can't continue. (This is a very real risk as some of my clients can confirm.)
The savage exemption clauses that one finds in many standard-form contracts
are a reflection of this fact and the failure of courts to understand this leads
to many of the absurd decisions on "fundamental breach", etc.
-----Original
Message-----
From: Robert H Stevens [mailto:robert.stevens@ucl.ac.uk]
Sent: January 15, 2009 5:10 AM
To: haroldjen@netspace.net.au
Cc: Obligations list
Subject: Re: ODG: Duties to the unborn
(1) Thanks to Harold for the Patrick Atiyah reference. I hadn't read
that
note.
It is a classic example of 'duty scepticism.' He maintains, as so many
others have, that the duty of care is not really a 'duty' (with a
correlative right) at all. Rather, it is "a shorthand method of
referring
to those situations in which the law imposes liability for
negligence". He
states as a truism that "the duty of care question in a negligence
action
is a policy question." As there was no policy against giving the
child a
claim, the result was obvious.
That is what I was also taught when I first studied the law of torts
twenty years ago. The very first quotation from a judge that I was
(with
approval) given when I studied was that of Lord Denning from Spartan
Steel
v Martin [1973] 1 QB 27, 36-37 where he says the same as Professor
Atiyah.
I was taught, and believed, that this was an example of refreshing
honesty
from the judge.
I now think that this duty scepticism is a pernicious falsehood, and
that
the duty of care is, as its name implies, a real duty with a
correlative
right.
Atiyah simply starts with the assumption that this is a straightforward
example of personal injury caused by negligence. If that premise were
correct his robust dismissal of the "legalistic" approach of
the judges
would be appropriate. It isn't correct.
(2) When we are faced with a plaintiff child born with terrible
disabilities, and a defendant corporation covered by liability
insurance,
there are different possible approaches to determining who should bear
the
costs of the child's future care and his or her other losses. One is to
try to work out who as a matter of policy should bear the loss.
My strong preference is that we should be governed by law rather than
men
(the judges are mostly men). This is especially true in a case such as
this, where the plight of the child is so obvious and where the
defendant
won't end up bearing the cost in any event. This means that, in hard
cases
on the margin, the result should turn on resolving technical issues
which
resemble 'medieval scholasticism.' Good. It is important for the law,
here
above all, to be as dreary and boring as possible.
The Thalidomide tragedy did indeed lead to a special rule for products
enacted by legislation. However, I have never heard any convincing
explanation as to why products are deserving of special treatment. Why
should there be strict liability for products but not for services?
None
of the arguments in favour of the reform were specific to products.
These
are the sorts of problems created by trying to ex post create a remedy
for
an intuitively deserving plaintiff.
(3) All of the arguments that I gave favoured giving the child a claim.
Conversely, it is perfectly possible to construct policy arguments
which
seek to deny the children a remedy. Neither one form of reasoning nor
the
other necessarily favours the plaintiff.
Rob
> I'm afraid that I'm going to be rude and say that the discussion
reminds
> me of medieval scholasticism. It was an argument such as the ones
being
> advanced on both sides here that was put forward, among others, to
seek
> to deny a remedy to the children of the mothers who ingested
> thalidomide. That tragedy led directly to the passing of the
English
> legislation and the /Paxton/ court argues that a solution should
be
> devised by the legislature if necessary. However, if one
gets away from
> these issues of "rights" of the unborn, the problem is
not really a
> difficult one for the common law, as Patrick Atiyah showed in a
note on
> /Watt v Rama/ in (1972) 10 /U of WA L Rev /159. Of course, proof
of
> breach and causation remain.
>
> Harold Luntz.
>
> Robert H Stevens wrote:
>> I don't agree I am afraid. Rights do indeed correlate with
duties (as
>> Charlie says). But there is no logical, linguistic or legal
reason why
>> the
>> right which the duty correlates with must coexist at the same
moment in
>> time with it. So in my hypothetical the right of the child
does indeed
>> correlate with the duty of the manufacturer, even though the
right and
>> the
>> duty do not exist at the same time.
>>
>> To take another example, say we accepted that we are under a
duty to our
>> great, great, great grandchildren not to despoil the environment.
Once
>> born, those persons will have a correlative right that we did
not so
>> despoil. We however, will not be under any duty at that
moment. We'll be
>> dead. the right and the duty never exist at the same moment in
time.
>>
>> I cannot be under a duty after I am dead. I cannot be a
right-holder
>> before I am born/conceived.
>>
>> So, in Lionel's example of the hole digger, there is a duty
not to dig
>> the
>> hole so as to endanger the person even before they come into
existence.
>> This is the same as the manufacturer of the baby food: they
owe the duty
>> not to manufacture poisoned baby food even though the child is
not yet
>> conceived. The correlative right arises only once the child is
>> born/conceived. The breach of duty occurs if the child is
poisoned/once
>> they fall in the hole.
>>
>> Rob
>>
>>
>>> I think perhaps I agree with both Charlie and Robert.
>>> If I carelessly create a hazard (make it a hole in the
ground) and no
>>> one
>>> is
>>> ever hurt, I don't think I have breached a duty.
>>> If however someone falls in the hole, I have breached a
duty.
>>> But the whole of my relevant actions took place before any
of the
>>> plaintiff's relevant actions, and but for the falling in
the hole, my
>>> actions would not have been a breach.
>>> All along I owed that person a duty to be careful in
relation to their
>>> bodily integrity; that is, a duty to take reasonable care
not to cause
>>> harm
>>> (not risk) to that integrity (I am not clever enough to
understand
>>> /Barker/). Until I harmed their bodily integrity, there
was no breach
>>> of
>>> the
>>> duty. Digging the hole that will (later) harm the
right-holder is not a
>>> breach of the right-holder's right. It is only the
beginning of what
>>> will
>>> later be revealed to be the breach.
>>> Now if we change it so that the person did not come into
existence
>>> until
>>> after I dug the hole, I am still liable. The only thing
that changes is
>>> that
>>> the right is not held and the duty not owed until the person
comes into
>>> existence.
>>> But since the digging of the hole, being merely the
beginning of a
>>> breach,
>>> is not itself the breach, it doesn't seem to matter that
the duty was
>>> not
>>> owed at that time.
>>> In other words, if the only persons in the jurisdiction
were me and the
>>> person who came into existence after I dug the hole, then
only after
>>> that
>>> person came into existence would it be legally prudent for
me to rush
>>> back
>>> and fill in the hole. Before that, my act has no juridical
content and
>>> can't
>>> be a breach of duty.
>>>
>>> It seems to me that the solution used by both the common
law and the
>>> law
>>> of
>>>
>>> understood
>>> to have begun at conception. You could call this 'relation
back' I
>>> suppose.
>>> The civilians call it a fiction but I'm not sure. It's
just the
>>> resolution
>>> of a very difficult set of interlocking interests. For one
set of
>>> reasons,
>>> we say that the person needed to be born alive to become a
person
>>> holding
>>> rights. But on the other hand, in order to be born alive
you need to be
>>> conceived and to exist in utero and to be at risk of harm.
>>>
>>> Lionel
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>
>>
>>
>
--
Robert Stevens
Professor of Commercial Law